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Oracle - Oracle Database SQL 1Z0-071 - 1Z0-071 exam dumps

Which two statements are true regarding constraints? (Choose two.)

A. All constraints can be defined at the column level and at the table level.

B. A constraint can be disabled even if the constraint column contains data.

C. A column with the UNIQUE constraint can contain NULLS.

D. A foreign key column cannot contain NULLS.

E. A constraint is enforced only for INSERT operations.

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Oracle - Oracle E-Business Suite (EBS) R12 Project Essentials 1Z0-511 - 1Z0-511 exam dumps
Refer to the exhibit.

In your company's Expenditure/Event Organization Hierarchy, organization labor costing rules are assigned to all organizations except San Jose. What happens when you run the "PRC: Distribute labor costs" program for a timecard transaction entered by an employee from the San Jose organization?
A. Therule assignedfor SanFranciscotakes precedence and the transaction will hesuccessfully a distributed.
B. The rule assigned for USA takes precedence and thetransaction will he successfully cost distributed.
C. The rule assigned for California takes precedence and the transaction will be successfullycostdistributed.
D. The program ignores this transaction, because no labor costing ruleis assigned for San Jose.andcompletesnormally.
E. The program completes normally. However, the output will have this transaction under the exceptions sectionwith a message "No Labor costing rule assigned for organization."
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Oracle - Oracle E-Business Suite R12.1 General Ledger Essentials 1Z0-516 - 1Z0-516 exam dumps

A Ledger is a financial reporting entity. What is new in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 that facilitates generation of accounting entries?

A. Ledger

B. Chart of Accounts

C. Multi-Org Structure

D. Accounting Convention

E. Financial Accounting Calendar

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Oracle - Oracle E-Business Suite R12.1 Inventory Essentials - 1Z0-519 exam dumps
A user has been assigned with five Operating Units in his or her security profile. The user transacts In three of those Operating Units, the remaining two are used occasionally.
The user can limit the list of values available to the three Operating Units by_____.

A. setting the preferred Operating Units in user preferences
B. setting the values for the MO: Operating Unit at the user level profile option
C. setting the values for the MO: Default Operating Units at the user level profile option
D. requesting the system administrator, to update the Operating Units in the security profile
E. requesting the system administrator to set up MO: Default Operating Unit for the responsibility
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Oracle - Oracle E-Business Suite R12.1 Order Management Essentials 1Z0-521 - 1Z0-521 exam dumps
Identify two features of value set that has a validation type of "None". (Choose two) A. It has an approved list of values associated with it.
B. The entered values must meet the formatting requirements
C. The Flexfield value security rules can not be used for a segment that uses this value set.
D. Users can enter any value that they want even if it does not meet formatting requirements
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer
B,C
Explanations
No more information available

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Oracle - Oracle E-Business Suite R12.1 Payables Essentials 1Z0-517 - 1Z0-517 exam dumps
Identify three options for preventing prepayments. (Choose three.)

A. Release the scheduled payment.
B. Apply one or more holds to the prepayment.
C. Apply the holds as you would for any other invoice.
D. Release the holds from a prepayment just as you would for any other invoice.
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Oracle - Oracle E-Business Suite R12.1 Purchasing Essentials 1Z0-520 - 1Z0-520 exam dumps
Profile options can be either required or optional. All required options must have a value. Which two profile options are required when setting up Oracle Inventory? (Choose two.)

A. INV: Validate Returned Lot
B. INV: Accounting Category Set
C. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials
D. INV: Default Primary Unit of Measure
E. INV: Replenishment Move Order Grouping
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Oracle - Oracle E-Business Suite R12.1 Receivables Essentials 1Z0-518 - 1Z0-518 exam dumps
Which two options would you use to restrict the functionality provided by a responsibility? (Choose two.)

A. creating an appropriate role
B. creating an appropriate group
C. constructing a new menu hierarchy
D. defining rules to exclude specific functions
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Oracle - Oracle Enterprise Manager Essentials 1Z0-457 - 1Z0-457 exam dumps
What Oracle Enterprise Manager pack can you use to compare two database schemas?
A. Data Masking pack
B. Database Lifecycle Management pack
C. Database Diagnostics pack
D. Database Tuning pack
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Oracle - Oracle Fusion Middleware 11g: Build Applications with Oracle Forms 1Z0-151 - 1Z0-151 exam dumps
There are certain errors that are specific to the Salary item on the Employees form. You want to trap these errors only when the user navigates from the Salary item.
You have a form-level On-Error trigger that traps errors that apply to the form in general, but yon additionally code an item-level On-Error trigger for the Salary item.
When testing the form, you find that the general errors are not trapped when you navigate from the Salary item. What can you do to correct this problem?

A. Call the form level On-Error trigger from the item-level On-Error trigger.
B. Call the item-level On-Error trigger from the form-level On-Error trigger.
C. Change the Execution Hierarchy property for the item-level On-Error trigger.
D. Change the Execution Hierarchy property for the form-level On-Error trigger.
E. Move all the code to a PL/SQL program unit and call it from both the form level and item level On-Error triggers.
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Oracle - Oracle Hyperion Planning 11 Essentials 1Z0-533 - 1Z0-533 exam dumps
Fragmentation in an underlying Planning Essbase database that is caused by what two actions?

A. Delete member from a sparse dimension.
B. Delete member from a dense dimension.
C. Renaming a member.
D. Renaming an alias.
E. Submitting data / deleting data frequently.
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Oracle - Oracle Linux 5 and 6 System Administration 1Z0-100 - 1Z0-100 exam dumps
Bash is invoked as an interactive login shell.
What is the order in which the bash configuration files are read, assuming that all the files exist in their correct location and are readable?
A. /etc/profile, ~/ .profile
B. /etc/profile, ~/ .bash_profile
C. /etc/profile, ~/ .bash_profile, ~/ .bash_login, ~/ .profile
D. /etc/profile, ~/ .bash_profile, ~/ .profile, ~/ .bash_login
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Oracle - Oracle Real Application Clusters 12c Essentials 1Z0-432 - 1Z0-432 exam dumps
Which statement about multipathing is incorrect?
A. Multipathing solutions provide failover by using redundant physical path components.
B. Multipathing is a software technology implemented at the operating system device level.
C. Multipathing improves system performance by distributing the I/O load across all available paths.
D. Multipathing is automatically configured when Oracle ASM discovers multiple paths to the same disk space.
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Oracle - Oracle Solaris 11 Advanced System Administration 1Z0-822 - 1Z0-822 exam dumps

Your server has a package repository that local clients access remotely. Which option manages HTTP access to the repository?

A. pkg set-property

B. pkg.depotd

C. pkg.repotd

D. pkgrepo

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Oracle - Oracle Solaris 11 System Administration 1Z0-821 - 1Z0-821 exam dumps

dbzone is currently running on your server. Which two methods would you use to safely and cleanly shut down dbzone and all of its applications?

A. zlogin –z dbzone halt

B. zoneadm –z dbzone shutdown –i0

C. zoneadm –z dbzone shutdown

D. zoneadm –z dbzone halt

E. zlogin dbzone shutdown –i0

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Oracle - Oracle VM 3.0 for x86 Essentials 1Z0-590 - 1Z0-590 exam dumps
Describe the certification process for Oracle products on Oracle VM.
A. With the exception of Oracle applications, all Oracle products are certified to run with Oracle VM immediately upon release.
B. Each Oracle product is responsible for stating their certification timeframe for Oracle VM support, but in no case will that delay be greater than six months.
C. Unless otherwise stated, all Oracle products that run on supported platforms are certified to run with Oracle VM immediately upon release.
D. Oracle products that run on supported platforms are certified immediately upon release. Oracle products on non-supported platforms are certified on a case-by-case basis.
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Oracle - Oracle WebLogic Server 12c Essentials 1Z0-599 - 1Z0-599 exam dumps
You are configuring the data source for an Oracle database. You will need to specify a test table for WebLogic to test the status of the database. Which option should you choose?
A. a table name which has 100s of records
B. a table name which has 10s of records
C. a table name which has empty records
D. a table name which has 1000s of records
E. never use a table name
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Oracle - Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c 1Z0-060 - 12c 1Z0-060 exam dumps

Which three statements are true when the listener handles connection requests to an Oracle 12c database instance with multithreaded architecture enabled In UNIX?

A. Thread creation must be routed through a dispatcher process

B. The local listener may spawn a now process and have that new process create a thread

C. Each Oracle process runs an SCMN threa

D. Each multithreaded Oracle process has an SCMN threa

E. The local listener may pass the request to an existing process which in turn will create a threa

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Oracle - Upgrade to Oracle Solaris 11 System Administrator 1Z0-820 - 1Z0-820 exam dumps
The current ZFS configuration on serverA is:
Pool1
c3t2d0
c3t3d0
Pool2
c3t4d0
c3t5d0
The ZFS configuration on serverB is:
Pool1
mirror-0
c3t2d0
c3t3d0
mirror-1
c3t4d0
c3t5d0
You need to change serverA?s ZFS configuration to match serverB?s configuration.
Which option should you choose to modify the configuration on serverA so that it matches serverB?s configuration?

A. zpool destroy pool2
zpool attach pool1 c3t4d0 ct3t5d0
B. zpool destroy pool2
zpool attach pool1 c3t2d0 c3t2d0 c3t4d0 c3t5d
C. zpool destroy pool2
zpool add pool1 c3t4d0 c3t5d0
D. zpool destroy pool2
zpool mirror pool1 pool2
E. zpool destroy pool2
zpool attach pool1 c3t2d0 c3t4d0
zpool attach pool1 c3t3d0 c3t5d0
F. zpool destroy pool1
zpool destroy pool2
zpool create pool1 mirror c3t2d0c3t3d0c3t4d0 c3t5d0
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Palo Alto Networks - Palo Alto Networks Certified Entry Level Technician - PCCET exam dumps

In which step of the cyber-attack lifecycle do hackers embed intruder code within seemingly innocuous files?

A. weaponization

B. reconnaissance

C. exploitation

D. delivery

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Palo Alto Networks - Palo Alto Networks Certified Network Security Administrator - PCNSA exam dumps

Which component provides network security for mobile endpoints by inspecting traffic routed through gateways?

A. Prisma SaaS

B. GlobalProtect

C. AutoFocus

D. Panorama

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Palo Alto Networks - Palo Alto Networks Certified Network Security Engineer - PCNSE 7 exam dumps

The company's Panorama server (IP 10.10.10.5) is not able to manage a firewall that was recently deployed. The firewall's dedicated management port is being used to connect to the management network. Which two commands may be used to troubleshoot this issue from the CLI of the new firewall? (Choose two)

A. test panoramas-connect 10.10.10.5

B. show panoramas-status

C. show arp all I match 10.10.10.5

D. topdump filter "host 10.10.10.5

E. debug dataplane packet-diag set capture on

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Paypal - PayPal Certified Developer Payments - P11-101 exam dumps
As the recipient of an IPN POST, you can resend the POST by____________.

A. Sending a resend API to the IPN URL
B. Logging into the PayPal account IPN history and selecting a message to resend
C. Logging into the PayPal transaction history, selecting a transaction, and clicking Resend
D. There is no way to resend an IPN POST.
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PegaSystems - Pega Certified Robotics System Architect - PEGAPCRSA80V1_2019 exam dumps

When performing application discovery, it is important that you __________________________ and __________________________ . (Choose two.)

A. utilize test methods to validate that you can interact with representatives of the controls in the use case

B. write automations to accomplish the basic search functionality of the application

C. interrogate all controls required for the use case

D. interrogate 100 percent of the controls in the application

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PMI - Certified Associate in Project Management - CAPM exam dumps

- (Topic 4) In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?

A. Monitoring and Controlling

B. Executing

C. Initiating

D. Planning

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PMI - PMI Agile Certified Practitioner - PMI-ACP exam dumps

A development team for a small company experiences long delays between product completion and release for validation and testing. The company is concerned that this will impact its ability to compete in the marketplace.

What analysis should the team use to understand the issues?

A. Risk management

B. Variance and trend

C. Kano model

D. Fishbone diagram

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PMI - PMI Professional in Business Analysis - PMI-PBA exam dumps

A business analyst is assigned to a business process re-engineering project. In addition to planning a workshop to elicit requirements, the business analyst wants to send out a survey to gather data to use in a statistical analysis on user satisfaction with the current business process.

Which of the following types of surveys would be most appropriate to create and why?

A. An open-ended survey to allow users the opportunity to explain their opinions on the current business process

B. A closed-ended survey to pose several multiple choice questions and ask the users if the current business process is correct

C. A closed-ended survey using the Likert scale to rank specific areas of the current business process

D. An open-ended survey to collect different opinions on the current business process

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PMI - PMI Risk Management Professional - PMI-RMP exam dumps

The project managers implementing a computer interface to facilitate communications between to ticketing systems for two major companies in the IT industry. During the Plan Risk Response process, the project team agrees on the contingency plan that should mitigate the negative impact of the risk. However, during the project execution, one of the subject matter experts identifies a residual risk that was not taken into consideration during the risk response planning session, but could potentially affect the project schedule baseline.

What should the risk manager do to handle this residual risk?

A. Increase the management reserve.

B. Analyze this risk and update the risk register.

C. Accept the risk, since it is minor.

D. Reject the risk, since the risk plan will take care of all the risks.

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PMI - PMI Scheduling Professional - PMI-SP exam dumps
Tom is the project manager of the GHQ Project for his organization. He is working on recovering the project schedule. As Tom examines his schedule he is especially aware of project activities with soft logic. What is soft logic?

A. Soft logic describes activities that do not have particular resources assigned to them.
B. Soft logic describes activities that can be completed in any order.
C. Soft logic describes activities that can have lead time added to them.
D. Soft logic describes activities that can be crashed because they are effort-driven.

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PMI - Program Management Professional  - PgMP exam dumps

A program with 10 components is in the planning phase. Project managers who oversee the component projects request detailed schedules. These schedules will be merged into one document to create a master schedule.

What should the program manager do to ensure that the overall program life cycle will meet stakeholder needs and deliver planned benefits?

A. Establish a quality review for the project schedules to ensure that resource leveling and baselines are followed and component projects are delivered on time

B. Work with the project managers to decompose their schedules to minimize risk and better understand the dependencies and resource needs

C. Decompose the component schedules to determine if work can be executed more quickly to deliver value earlier than planned

D. Create a work breakdown structure (WBS) to align program execution with stakeholder expectations and the benefits management plan

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PMI - Project Management Professional  - PMP exam dumps

The following table shows the business value created and the development effort required to implement various features in a product.

Which feature should the team prioritize first? Enter the feature name in the box below.

A. Mastered

B. Not Mastered

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PRINCE2 - PRINCE2 Foundation, 5th edition - PRINCE2 Foundation exam dumps

Which describes an off-specification?

A. An interdependency between products that was previously unidentified

B. The addition of an improvement to a product description

C. A prototype demonstrating a possible design solution

D. The production of more than the defined quantity of a specialist product

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PRINCE2 - PRINCE2 Practitioner - PRINCE2 Practitioner exam dumps

It is now late October and the project is in stage 3. The label design competition has been held and the photos of the staff have been taken. The CEO and Marketing Director still need to choose the winning label design and the 12 photos for the calendar. However, the Executive has learned that two competitors are issuing calendars to MNO's customers by the middle of November. After analyzing the impact of this Issue, one of the options the Project Manager has presented to the Project Board is to close the project prematurely.

There are a number of key facts relating to this project that would need to be recorded if the project Y-e to be closed now.

Which product should show that if anybody has any remaining resource costs to be charged to the project, they should ensure this is done by 10 November?

A. Benefits Review Plan

B. End Project Report

C. Follow-on action recommendations

D. Project closure notification

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PRINCE2 - PRINCE2 Re-registration - PRINCE2 Re-registration exam dumps

Which is a purpose of the Starting up a Project process?

A. Prevent poorly conceived projects from ever being initiated

B. Ensure the communication requirements of all stakeholders are documented

C. Learn lessons from this project

D. Document how changes required by corporate or programme management will be reviewed

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Pulse Secure - Pulse Connect Secure (PCS): Administration and Configuration - PCS exam dumps

Connection set connection options allow for configuration of which option?

A. User configuration

B. User access

C. Endpoint security

D. List of Connection URLs

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RedHat - Red Hat Certified Specialist in Ansible Automation exam - EX407 exam dumps

What is the defaults directory used for within a role?

A. The defaults directory is for defining default values for variables if no other value is provided.

B. The defaults directory is where you define which plays of a role will be used by default.

C. The defaults directory is for defining variable values that override other variables used in a playbook using the role.

D. The defaults directory stores configurations that override ansible.cfg.

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RedHat - Red Hat Certified System Administrator (RHCSA) - EX200 exam dumps

SIMULATION

Notes: NFS NFS instructor.example.com:/var/ftp/pub/rhel6/dvd YUM https://instructor.example.com/pub/rhel6/dvd ldap??http //instructor.example.com/pub/EXAMPLE-CA-CERT

Install dialog package.


A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered
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RES - RES Automation Manager 2011 - ES0-005 exam dumps
Which classes of Parameters are available?

A. Task , Module, Project
B. Module , Project, Run Book
C. Project, Resource, Run Book
D. Task, Resource, Run Book
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RES - RES Automation Manager 2011 Service Orchestration - ES0-006 exam dumps
Each Service Orchestration client retrieves an overview of all services that can be requested and of all services that can be delivered from

A. the Console.
B. the Automation Manager Datastore.
C. the Transaction Engine.
D. the Catalog Service.
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RES - RES PowerFuse 2010 Basic Exam - ES0-004 exam dumps
What command line can an administrator use to start a RES PowerFuse Session in an Exclusive Workspace Container?
A. %programfiles%\RES PowerFuse\pfwsmgr.exe /ws <name of workspace container>
B. %programfiles%\RES PowerFuse\pwrmenu.exe /ws <name of workspace container >
C. %programfiles%\RES PowerFuse\pfwsmgr.exe /ew <name of workspace container >
D. %programfiles%\RES PowerFuse\pwrmenu.exe /ew <name of workspace container >
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RES - RES PowerFuse Series 8 Basic - ES0-003 exam dumps
The RES PowerFuse Management Console
1. communicates with the local cache.
2. enables you to manage all technology stacks.
3. enables you to manage only one technology stack.
4. communicates directly with the RES PowerFuse Datastore.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only
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RES - RES Wisdom Series 4 Essentials - ES0-002 exam dumps
Which hives can be modified using the task, Apply Registry Settings?

A. All hives present in the registry of the agent
B. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG and HKEY_USERS
C. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT, HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE and HKEY_USERS
D. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT, HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE, HKEY_USERS and HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG
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RES - RES Workspace Manager 2012 Basic Exam - ES0-007 exam dumps
Which port does the Relay Server use to communicate with the RES Workspace Manager Agents?

A. Port 3163
B. Port 1942
C. Port 10000
D. Port 3389
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SAIR - Core Concepts and Practices (Level 2) - 3X0-201 exam dumps
A Linux system administrator wants to implement journaling on the system. Which of the following file systems should he use?
A. minixfs
B. NTFS v5.0
C. FAT32
D. EXT2
E. ReiserFS
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SAIR - Apache Webserver - 3X0-202 exam dumps
Which of the following is the main problem with using.htaccess to override directives in httpd.conf?

A. .htaccess must have a per-loaded PAM module that requires extra configuraton.
B. .htaccess is insecure because it requires root permission to access subirectories.
C. .htaccess delays page access by recursively searching subdirectories.
D. .htaccess does not search every directory, possibly leaving subdirectories open.
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SAIR - Linux Installation and Configuration (Level 1) - 3X0-101 exam dumps
Which of the following options indicates that the input of the program called printdata should be redirected to come from the file called mydata?
A. printdata . mydata
B. printdata > mydata
C. printdata < mydata
D. printdata | mydata
E. None of the above
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SAIR - Samba Resource Sharing - 3X0-203 exam dumps
Sharon has the share modes parameter in her smb.conf file set to "no." Given this information, which of the following is TRUE?
A. No remote Windows clients can access her Samba shares.
B. No remote Linux clients can access her Samba shares.
C. No remote guest accounts can access her Samba shares.
D. No network clients can access her Samba shares.
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SAIR - Sendmail Mail Systems - 3X0-204 exam dumps
The system administrator wants to add the noatime option to the mail queue directory. Given that the /dev/hda6 is currently mounted as /var/spool/mqueue, what command will achieve this?
A. mount /dev/hda3 /var/spool/mqueue noatime
B. mount -o remount,noatime /dev/hda3
C. setfs /dev/hda3 noatime
D. mount -o noatime /var/spool/mqueue /dev/hda3
E. mount -r /dev/hda3 -o noatime
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SAP - Certified Associate - Utilities with SAP ERP 6.0 - C_FSUTIL_60 exam dumps
Which processes can be directly called within the account display transaction? (Choose three)
A. Change contract
B. Display returns history
C. Mass change
D. Create budget billing plan
E. Display installation
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SAP - Certified Application Associate - SAP S/4HANA Sales 1909 - C_TS462_1909 exam dumps

What are the consequences of posting goods issue? (Choose three.)

A. Delivery requirements in material planning are updated

B. The warehouse task status is set to complete

C. The quantity in inventory management is updated

D. A debit is posted to the customer account

E. A material document is posted

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