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CompTIA - CompTIA Cloud Essential+ - CLO-002 exam dumps

Which of the following storage types will BEST allow data to be backed up and retained for long

periods of time?

A. Solid state storage

B. Block storage

C. Object storage

D. File storage

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CompTIA - CompTIA Cloud+ - CV0-003 exam dumps

After accidentally uploading a password for an IAM user in plain text, which of the following should a cloud administrator do FIRST?

A. Identify the resources that are accessible to the affected IAM user

B. Remove the published plain-text password

C. Notify users that a data breach has occurred

D. Change the affected IAM user’s password

E. Delete the affected IAM user

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CompTIA - CompTIA CTT+ - TK0-201 exam dumps

Which of the following are reasons trainers compile an end-of-class report? (Select TWO).

A. To document any disciplinary issues that arose with training personnel

B. To document any modifications the trainer made from course design

C. To evaluate the success of course design

D. To protect the trainer from participant formal complaints

E. To evaluate the competence of the course designer

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CompTIA - CompTIA CySA+ - CS0-001 exam dumps

-(Exam Topic 3) A security analyst is preparing for the company's upcoming audit Upon review of the company's latest vulnerability scan, the security analyst finds the following open issues:

Which of the following vulnerabilities should be prioritized for remediation FIRST?

A. ICMP timestamp request remote date disclosure

B. Anonymous FTP enabled

C. Unsupported web server detection

D. Microsoft Windows SMB service enumeration via \srvsvc

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CompTIA - CompTIA IT fundamentals - FC0-U61 exam dumps

Which of the following network protocols will MOST likely be used when sending and receiving Internet email? (Select TWO.)

A. SMTP

B. POP3

C. SNMP

D. DHCP

E. ICMP

F. SFTP

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CompTIA - CompTIA Linux+ - XK0-004 exam dumps

After installing a new web server, you are unable to browse to the default web page.

INSTRUCTIONS

Review all the command output and select the command needed to remediate the issue.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

A. Mastered

B. Not Mastered

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CompTIA - CompTIA Network+ - N10-007 exam dumps

A network technician needs to install network devices in a new building. The building will be a part of the corporate network and has the connection to the core network already. Which of the following devices must be configured in the new building?

A. Firewall

B. Switch

C. Modem

D. IDS

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CompTIA - CompTIA Pentest+ - PT0-001 exam dumps

A penetration tester has been asked to conduct OS fingering with Nmap using a company-provided text file that contains a list of IP addresses. Which of the following are needed to conduct this scan? (Choose two.)

A. -O

B. -iL

C. -sV

D. -sS

E. -oN

F. -oX

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CompTIA - CompTIA Project+ - PK0-004 exam dumps

An active project has a CPI of 0.92. Which of the following can be determined?

A. The project is currently over budget.

B. The project has ABudget surplus.

C. The project is ahead of schedule.

D. The project is behind schedule.

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CompTIA - CompTIA Security+ - SY0-501 exam dumps

A systems administrator wants to enforce the use of HTTPS on a new website. Which of the

following should the systems administrator do NEXT after generating the CSR?

A. Install the certificate on the server.

B. Provide the public key to the CA.

C. Password protect the public key.

D. Ensure the new key is not on the CRL.

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Computer Associates - Certified Unicenter Specialist Administrator - 270-131 exam dumps
When accessing the Topology feature inside Unicenter Explorer, what three of these views are available from the Right Pane?

A. 2D Map
B. Explorer
C. RealTime View
D. 3D Map
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Computer Associates - Certified Unicenter Specialist Engineer - 270-132 exam dumps
Which are the standard SNMP ports?

A. 161, 162
B. 161, 6665
C. 6665, 162
D. 1433, 1721
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Computer Associates - Partner Certification for IAM: Foundation Exam - 270-411 exam dumps
Which three database types are supported within an eTrust SiteMinder environment? (Choose three.)
A. User Store
B. Token Data
C. Policy Store
D. Resource Store
E. Accounting Logs
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Computer Associates - Partner Certification for SIM: Foundation Exam - 270-420 exam dumps
With respect to Product Interface Profiles, which two items reside on the eTrust SCC server? (Choose two.)
A. iGateway
B. Product Interface Component Agent
C. Product Interface Component servlet
D. Product Interface Component profiles
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Computer Associates - Unicenter Service Support r11.2 Advanced Implementation Exam - 270-551 exam dumps
The Unicenter Service Desk (Unicenter SD) log folder is located in the install directory of Unicenter S
D. Is this statement true or false?
A. True
B. False
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CWNP - Certified Wireless Analysis Professional  - CWAP-403 exam dumps

What is the difference between a Data frame and a QoS-Data frame?

A. QoS Data frames include a QoS control field

B. QoS Data frames include a QoS information element

C. QoS Data frames include a DSCP control field

D. QoS Data frames include an 802.1Q VLAN tag

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CWNP - Certified Wireless Design Professional - CWDP-303 exam dumps

In addition to a copy of your design, which tools should you use to ensure the installation team deploys APs where you have them designed to be located?

A. GPS and a map

B. RF spectrum analyzer and packet capturing software

C. Ladder and a pen

D. Camera and marking tools

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CWNP - Certified Wireless Network Administrator - CWNA-108 exam dumps

What statement describes the authorization component of a AAA implementation?

A. Verifying that a user is who he says he is.

B. Implementing a WIPS as a full-time monitoring solution to enforce policies.

C. Granting access to specific network services or resources according to a user profile.

D. Validating client device credentials against a database.

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DELL/EMC - Associate - Cloud Infrastructure and Services v3 Exam - DEA-2TT3 exam dumps

What is a function of business relationship management?

A. Determine if the capacity of IT services can deliver the agreed upon service levels

B. Identify requirements and ensure that the appropriate services are provided

C. Identify accurate information for all operational services

D. Determine what the sufficient capacity is to meet business demand

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DELL/EMC - Associate - Networking Exam - DEA-5TT1 exam dumps

A network administrator has a Dell EMC switch that has been configured with several VLANs. Each VLAN switch virtual interface (SVI) has an IP address assigned to it with each of them on different subnets. In addition, routing has been enabled on the switch.

Which action occurs when the switch receives a packet on one of its SVIs but the destination IP address of the packet does not match the IP address of that SVI?

A. Switch checks its routing table and forwards the packet accordingly.

B. Switch duplicates the packet and sends it to all interfaces.

C. Switch replies back to the source with an ICMP Reject packet.

D. Switch drops the packet.

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DELL/EMC - Associate PowerEdge Exam - DEA-41T1 exam dumps

A server administrator wants to transfer files between a workstation and a server. It needs to be as simple as possible, without concern for security or advanced functionality.

Which is the optimal protocol to choose?

A. HTTP

B. SFTP

C. SMTP

D. TFTP

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DELL/EMC - Cloud Infrastructure Specialist Exam for Cloud Architects - DES-2T13 exam dumps

An organization uses Microsoft Active Directory (AD) for service authentication in their private cloud. They want to use the same authentication source for services in the public cloud. External employees access services in both clouds and need to authenticate with AD.

The organization wants to minimize and secure network traffic. Which solution will address these requirements?

A. External users connect with IPsec VPN Place AD controllers in the private cloud only

B. Configure perimeter firewalls to allow AD traffic Place AD controllers in the private and public clouds

C. Connect the two clouds through IPsec VPN Place AD controllers in the private cloud only

D. Connect the two clouds through IPsec VPN Place AD controllers in the private and public clouds

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DELL/EMC - Expert - PowerScale Solutions Exam - DEE-1421 exam dumps

A company is implementing Superna Eyeglass to automate and orchestrate SyncIQ failover and failback. What is one of the requirements when implementing Superna Eyeglass for a Dell EMC Isilon cluster?

A. Dedicated IP pool must exist

B. Administrator account must be used

C. Dedicated subnet must exist

D. System Access zone must be used

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DELL/EMC - Information Storage and Management v4 Exam - DEA-1TT4 exam dumps

In a recovery operation, what is the correct sequence of steps after the backup client sends a restore request to the backup server?

A. Mastered

B. Not Mastered

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DELL/EMC - RecoverPoint Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers - E20-375 exam dumps
A new RecoverPoint system is being installed and the RPAs need to be upgraded to the latest version.
How should this be done?
A. Choose the option to upgrade the RPA version from an ISO while installing RecoverPoint using Deployment Manager.
B. Before doing the install ensure all the RPAs IP addresses reach each other. Connect to RPA1 with boxmgmt and do the upgrade.
C. Install the new system with Deployment Manager and then log in as boxmgmt and perform the upgrade on one RPA.
D. Upgrade the RPAs to the latest version first; otherwise Deployment Manager will prevent the installation.
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DELL/EMC - Specialist - Implementation Engineer, Avamar Exam - E20-594 exam dumps
By default, where are the cache files located on an EMC Avamar Windows backup client?
A. C:\Program Files\avs\var
B. C:\Program Files\avs\var\clientlogs
C. C:\Program Files\avs\administrator
D. C:\Program Files\avs\bin
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DELL/EMC - Specialist - Systems Administrator, Avamar Exam - E20-598 exam dumps
What is the maximum number of backups that can be running per Avamar storage node in order for HFS check to initiate successfully?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
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DELL/EMC - Specialist - Technology Architect Midrange Storage Solutions Exam - DES-1D12 exam dumps

Which feature helps to enable file service High Availability on Dell EMC PowerStore?

A. NAS Network Heartbeat

B. RAID protected disk drives

C. Multiple redundant network ports with system bond

D. Redundant nodes with Live Volume enabled

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DELL/EMC - Specialist - Technology Architect, PowerScale (Isilon) Solutions Exam - E20-555 exam dumps

Where are file system changes first stored?

A. L1 Cache

B. Endurant Cache C. L2 Cache

D. Journal

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DELL/EMC - Specialist Implementation Engineer Campus Networking Exam - DES-5121 exam dumps

What is the maximum number of dynamic MAC addresses that can be learned on a Dell EMC N-Series switchport that is configured for dynamic locking?

A. 100

B. 300

C. 400

D. 600

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DELL/EMC - Specialist Implementation Engineer ECS Exam - DES-1B21 exam dumps

Which user role has access to all areas of the ECS portal?

A. System Administrator

B. Namespace Administrator

C. Tenant Administrator

D. Power user

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DELL/EMC - Specialist Implementation Engineer PowerEdge MX Modular Exam - DES-4421 exam dumps

A technician has replaced an MX chassis tub. They complete the tub installation and power on the chassis. They notice that the KVM is no longer functional.

What should the technician do after confirming the KVM feature is still enabled in OME-M?

A. Ensure all cables connecting the tub to the left ear control panel are connected properly

B. Ensure all power supplies are connected and powered-on

C. Ensure all cables connecting the tub to the right ear control panel are connected properly

D. Ensure all installed Management Modules are connected to the network

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DELL/EMC - Specialist Implementation Engineer SC Series Exam - DES-1721 exam dumps

Which datapage size options are available for SC Series arrays?

A. 512 KB, 1 MB, and 2 MB

B. 512 KB, 2 MB, and 4 MB

C. 1 MB, 2 MB, and 4 MB

D. 1 MB, 4 MB, and 8 MB

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DELL/EMC - Specialist Infrastructure Security Exam - DES-9131 exam dumps

What are the five functions of the NIST Framework Core?

A. Identify, Protect, Detect, Respond, and Recover

B. Governance, Identify, Recover, Respond, and Recover

C. Protect, Detect, Respond, Governance, and Recover

D. Identify, Respond, Protect, Detect, and Governance

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DELL/EMC - Specialist Systems Administrator ECS Exam - DES-1B31 exam dumps

What is a characteristic of ECS?

A. Cannot be federated to protect data across multiple sites

B. Cannot be run on non-Dell EMC hardware for custom solutions using existing resources

C. Provides offline object access for mobile, desktop, and enterprise applications

D. Provides simultaneous access to data via several standard industry protocols

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DELL/EMC - Specialist Systems Administrator VxRail Appliance Exam - DES-6332 exam dumps

What is used in the VxRail infrastructure to manage multiple clusters of ESXi servers?

A. Host client

B. vCenter

C. VxRail Manager

D. ESXi

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DELL/EMC - Specialist Technology Architect Data Protection Exam - DES-3611 exam dumps

In Dell EMC Data Protection Suite for Applications, which Application Direct agent supports Oracle 10gR2?

A. Microsoft Application Agent

B. Database Application Agent

C. Oracle RMAN Agent

D. Oracle Database Agent

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DELL/EMC - VPLEX Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers - E20-260 exam dumps
A customer is performing maintenance on their network that might affect their VPLEX Witness VM.
What can be done to ensure there are no adverse effects due to a Witness outage?
A. Disable the cluster's management server ipsec.
B. Disable the VPLEX Witness.
C. Shut down the VPLEX Witness VM.
D. Shut down the cluster's management server.
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DELL/EMC - XtremIO Solutions Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers - E20-368 exam dumps

What is the maximum number of volumes and snapshots per XMS?

A. 8192 snapshots and volumes (combined)

B. 2048 snapshots and volumes (combined)

C. 8192 snapshots and 2048 volumes

D. 2048 snapshots and 8192 volumes

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ECCouncil - Certified Chief Information Security Officer - CISO exam dumps

- (Topic 3) Which of the following represents the best method of ensuring business unit alignment with security program requirements?

A. Provide clear communication of security requirements throughout the organization

B. Demonstrate executive support with written mandates for security policy adherence

C. Create collaborative risk management approaches within the organization

D. Perform increased audits of security processes and procedures

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ECCouncil - Certified Ethical Hacking - 312-50 exam dumps
Which of the following ICMP message types are used for destinations unreachables?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 11
D. 13
E. 17
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ECCouncil - Incident Handler - ECIH exam dumps

The open source TCP/IP network intrusion prevention and detection system (IDS/IPS), uses a rule-driven language, performs real-time traffic analysis and packet logging is known as:

A. Snort

B. Wireshark

C. Nessus

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ECCouncil - Security Specialist - ECSS exam dumps
Which of the following programs is used to monitor the keystrokes that a user types on a specific computer's keyboard?

A. Keylogger
B. Ettercap
C. THC-Hydra
D. Brutus
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F5 - BIG-IP LTM Specialist: Maintain and Troubleshoot - 301B exam dumps

-- Exhibit –

-- Exhibit -

Refer to the exhibit.

An LTM Specialist is working on an LTM 11.0.0 installation and has identified a security vulnerability as shown in the exhibit. The LTM Specialist is tasked with applying the latest available hotfix to resolve the problem.

Which procedure resolves the problem?

A. Browse to System > Software Management > Hotfix List. Import TMOS 11.2.0 to the available hotfix images. Select the imported hotfix image and installation location and click Install.

B. Browse to System > Software Management > Hotfix List. Import 11.1.0.HF3 to the available hotfix images. Select the imported hotfix image and installation location and click Install.

C. Browse to System > Software Management > Image List. Import TMOS 11.2.0 to the available hotfix images. Select the imported hotfix image and installation location and click Install.

D. Browse to System > Software Management > Image List. Import 11.1.0.HF3 to the available hotfix images. Select the imported hotfix image and installation location and click Install.

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F5 - TMOS Administration - 201 exam dumps

Assuming that systems are synchronized, which action could take place if the fail over cable is connected correctly and working properly, but the systems cannot communicate over the network due to external network problems?

A. If network failover is enabled, the standby system will assume the active mode.

B. Whether or not network failover is enabled, the standby system will stay in standby mode.

C. Whether or not network failover is enabled, the standby system will assume the active mode.

D. If network failover is enabled, the standby system will go into active mode but only until the network recovers.

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GAQM - Associate in Project Management (APM) - APM-001 exam dumps
What is project management?
A. A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques
B. Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements
C. Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project
D. A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled
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GAQM - Business Process Manager (BPM) - BPM-001 exam dumps
Workflow engines require a significant amount of ________ and ________ to get underway?
A. time
B. resources
C. money
D. variance
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GAQM - Certified Data Centre Professional (CDCP) - CDCP-001 exam dumps

Which one of the following is an Audible Signaling and Notification Device?

A. Sirens

B. Strobes

C. Alarms

D. Clocks

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GAQM - Certified Scrum Master (CSM) - CSM-001 exam dumps
How many principles form the foundation of the Manifesto for Agile Software Development?
A. 10
B. 9
C. 12
D. 15
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GAQM - Certified Software Tester - Foundation Level (CSTFL) - CTFL-001 exam dumps

- (Topic 12) For which of the following would maintenance testing be used?

A. Correction of defects during the development phase.

B. Planned enhancements to an existing operational system.

C. Complaints about system quality during user acceptance testing.

D. Integrating functions during the development of a new system.

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